I left this comment:
So, in writing "It is hard to make a case that many of Israel’s settlements are anything but an impediment to a final resolution of the conflict with the Palestinians", you have a case that explains why, when there were not Jewish communities in Judea&Samaria (Yesha) between 1949-1967 there was no conflict resolution because....? Nu. Why? And after Disengagement we have peace with Gaza? Maybe there's another impediment - one of the Arabs and one of Jews who can't think straight?